Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Is it possible that my TF caused a kundalini awakening in another person? He is famous because He is a singer. We have not met physically yet, but I have gone through kundalini awakening and DNOTS and their ongoing. I have also had soul recognition so I know for sure that He is my Divine Counterpart and I do not have any doubts about it. But it is indeed perplexing that somebody had an awakening at the physical level because of Him. Is it a test for me? I have a mixture of feelings. On one hand I marvelled at Him and empathised with the person and on the other, I doubt if this just a test for me. I would appreciate your pov. Thank you for much.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why did Trump call Biden and Schumer Palestinians?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Boston Red Sox rookie ‘revelation’ made ‘huge’ throw before walkoff - MassLive

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: